The Civil War Was Not Reparation (A Response to Kevin DeYoung)


Theologian Kevin DeYoung wonders what it would take to complete reparations. When is enough enough? This is the issue of reparative closure. As far as I can tell, DeYoung thinks reparationism suffers from ambiguity regarding the conditions for reparative closure. He writes:

So the question must naturally be asked: when and how can that debt be discharged? Did the 700,000 lives lost and quadrupling of the national debt during the Civil War count as any sort of reparation? Was Lincoln justified, in any sense, when he claimed that every drop of blood drawn with the lash had been paid for with blood drawn by the sword?

DeYoung also wonders about government welfare programs and non-government assistance. Are they "any sort of reparation"? While these are important questions, I'll focus on DeYoung's question about the civil war. 

I think we should doubt that the civil war was reparation––not merely that it was incomplete reparation but that it was "any sort of reparation." The problem arises when we mix concepts: rescue with repair.

In their watershed work on reparations, Darity and Mullen offer the following illustration to make this point:

Suppose that you are forced to work for me. Suppose further that I also deprive you of your freedom and earnings. In addition, I profit from having done so. Then, finally suppose that, after some time––decades, perhaps–-I am made to or choose to cease this practice, but I retain all profits accrued up to this point and you have nothing. Is that justice? We think not.

Darity and Mullen make a similar point about affirmative action. Was affirmative action "any sort of reparation?" They answer as follows: "Affirmative action can get you through the door, but it does not provide you with restitution for having been kept out of the door in the past..." 

Actions that "open doors" or emancipate are undoubtedly central to reparative justice. But reparation, properly understood, refers to the steps we must take after the doors have been opened and after the oppressed have been liberated. Hence, to say that these actions were "some form of reparation" may stretch the concept of reparation too far or, worse, create the impression that we're nearing reparative closure. If the immense Black-white wealth gap represents the cumulative impact of historic racism (and, arguably, it does)––not to mention anything about the unpaid wages of the enslaved, ongoing Black poverty owing to housing discrimination and deindustrialization, persistent educational inequities attached to local wealth, etc.––then reparative closure is not within reach. Unless something changes. 

What DeYoung might be missing, and what Darity and Mullen are pointing toward, is the conceptual difference between rescue and repair. Arguably, the satisfaction conditions for one are not the satisfaction conditions for the other. Just imagine that a negligent, apathetic lifeguard dozes off while on duty at the beach. As a result, he fails to see a shark approaching the swimming area. The shark attacks a swimmer. Eventually the lifeguard rescues the swimmer, but both he and the swimmer suffer loses (e.g., each loses a limb). Imagine the lifeguard raises the following argument: "I don't owe any form of repair to the shark attack victim; after all, I rescued the swimmer and the process was highly costly to me." The argument has the ring of absurdity. 

Notice, moreover, that the lifeguard is partially at fault for the swimmer's injuries. In cases like this, it is most obvious to me that costly rescue does not address the cost of repair. This highlights the difference between the demands of rescue vs. the demands of repair. 

Now, while cases like these (and the one's raised by Darity and Mullen) are helpful steps toward answering DeYoung-style questions, they have limitations. For one, the lifeguard case does not model the fact that, pre-emancipation, not everyone supported slavery. In fact, many white Americans were abolitionists. What happens to the rescue/repair distinction in complex cases like that? Second, and relatedly, the case does not model corporate responsibility for slavery. The reparationist position has almost always claimed government institutions (e.g., federal, state, and local governments) bear blame for historic injustice and thereby owe repair (Darity and Mullen are clear about this). The responsibility is corporate and institutional, rather than personal.

To evaluate the relevance of these factors, consider a revised beach case. Imagine that the recreation department presides over the beach. It is responsible for alerting swimmers about inclement beach conditions, shark threats, openings and closings, etc. It must intervene to protect beachgoers from perilous conditions. However, the recreation department acts negligently and fails to alert beach goers to the inclement weather and the likelihood of shark attacks today. In fact, the department is incentivized to turn a blind eye toward these perils; it benefits from day-pass revenue. The department is even filled with numerous people who harbor unfounded biases––worse, antipathy––toward beach goers. Still, some in the department try to raise the alarm. Nevertheless, the recreation department fails to close the beach. Various swimmers are attacked, suffer injuries from the crashing waves, and nearly drown. 

Clearly, the recreation department (and the city administration more generally) has a moral responsibility to help repair injuries and compensate the victims. That is, the responsibility to repair is corporate (at the very least). Now ask: are these culpable institutions absolved of their rectificatory responsibilities simply because some of their lifeguards (and perhaps other city residents) were injured in the process of rescuing the victims? Clearly not. In fact, they would still have rectificatory responsibilities to the surviving victims even if some lifeguards and noble city residents lost their lives in an attempt to rescue the swimmers. Suppose, moreover, that the recreation department goes into immense debt in order to rescue beach goers (they have to purchase a large rescue boat!). Does that count as some form of rectification? Intuitively, no. Do they owe even a little less in compensation because of these things? Again, the answer seems to be "no."

Finally, suppose Lincoln shows up at the beach and says, "every drop of blood drawn by the sharks and jagged reef floor was paid for by the blood of every lifeguard injured or drowned in the rescue." Clearly, Lincoln is mistaken. Whatever the sense of "paid for" in Lincoln's statement, it is not the sense that matters for rectificatory justice. 

Here's the takeaway: the cost of rescue is not the cost of repair; satisfying one responsibility does not necessarily satisfy the other. This is true even when the responsibility to rescue is costly––and it is most clearly true when the corporate entity responsible for rescue is also at fault for the perilous conditions that created the need for rescue in the first place.

As far as U.S. slavery goes, the very institutions that allowed and protected slavery were partially at fault for the conditions of oppression. They were partially at fault for the harms that lingered in the aftermath of emancipation (think about "40 acres and a mule" and the hasty collapse of reconstruction). We can be grateful (and mournful) for the sacrifice made of thousands of Union soldiers (Black and white). We can be grateful that the U.S. federal government finally intervened on slavery. But we should not mistake that sacrifice with the satisfaction of reparative debt. 

Comments

  1. Lifeguard analogy: What makes you think the federal govt, or the union states, were negligent at all? As for the union states, they outlawed slavery within their own territories, thereby satisfying at least a local moral obligation, an arguably that's as far as their obligation goes. Why would they be charged with a duty to protect and/or rescue slaves in the south at all? The lifeguard *willingly* enters the job with the understanding that they are obligated to oversee and rescue if necessary the swimmers. The union states were under no such legal obligation certainly.

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    1. Thanks for the comment, JL. You write: "The lifeguard *willingly* enters the job with the understanding that they are obligated to oversee and rescue if necessary the swimmers. The union states were under no such legal obligation certainly." Whether or not legal obligations of rescue are in place is irrelevant to the claim that the U.S. fed gov't acted negligently with respect to slavery, no? Moreover, what's legal is often irrelevant to what's moral. Imagine a version of the U.S. where the constitution says, "the gov't is not permitted to abolish nor intervene on slavery." Nevertheless, surely the gov't acts wrongly by failing to intervene. Maybe the argument can be made that, in such a world, the wrongdoing isn't one of negligence. But even there I have my doubts. Consider Nazi Germany. State law prohibited citizens from harboring Jews. Nevertheless, had citizens not intervened, they would have acted negligently.

      Having said that, I think the right response is this: while it's clear that citizens acted negligently, despite the absence of a legal duty to intervene on behalf of Jews, it's less clear that this applies to State institutions. It sounds strange to say that the Nazi regime was *negligent* for failing to protect Jews.

      However, it doesn't sound strange to say that the U.S. federal gov't was negligent for failing to intervene on slavery. That suggests that there is a structural difference between the U.S.'s federal institutions (during the time of slavery) and the Nazi regime. It would be a fun theoretical task to tease out the differences that explain this.

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  2. (part 2) As for the fed govt, one of the central principles of our govt was that of state's rights. Even if a state were to enact a henious law, it can be argued (and very strongly argued) that the suffering which could be caused by violating the core principles of the consitution would vastly supercede the suffering alleviated by immediate intervention. Even if these parties held responsibility for rescue (and therefore reparations, as your article suggests to me), why not also Canada? And what about Europe? Even Russia? What is it about the US govt that makes them owe reparations, but not Russia? Since you are arguing from a moral obligation, and not a legal one, why does proximity matter (think Peter Singer's views)? The Russian at the time probably(if not them, there must have been at least one other major power who did) had the technological and economic capability to send a large military force to the south and liberate the slaves, but they didn't... so do they too owe reparations? Where would it end?

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  3. I would love to hear from you a precise answer to the question: What conditions exactly must be met to make A responsible for reparations towards party B? To infer a definition from you article, it would be something like: For A to owe reparations to B for B's suffering (during a specific timeframe, i.e. from t_1 to t_2), all of the following must hold: 1. A was charged with the care(what kind of care, moral, legal?) of B at the time of the suffering 2. A was negligent and/or malicious in the execution of this care and therefore bore a significant amount of fault for the onset of the suffering 3. A had the capability to rescue (or at least alleviate) B's suffering. -- The reason why I want to narrow this down is because I think the definition will have massive implications for all of your arguments in this article.

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    1. This was me, JL, forgot to write in my initials haha

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  4. And here's a serious problem: where are you going to get the money? If, indeed, white americans living today benefited significantly from the institution (which is highly debatable) then your moral argument seems to imply that they should hold the fiscal responsibility. Let's forget for a moment the wide variation of income in white americans, and also forget that these supposed "benefits" may not have manifested in terms of raw dollars - suppose indeed that white americans in general are capable of providing this money - it's unlikely that most of them are willingly going to give it - how much would you give? Do you suppose that we compel them to? A "reparations tax", which in reality would just be a race tax, applied only to white people's income or something like that. Forget for a moment that such a tax would obviously never come to fruition in the USA and is totally unrealistic - even if it did, can you really morally justify this tax? Would there not be suffering caused by this tax, is it no inherently racist and an act of theft? How is compulsory reparation comparable morally to voluntary reparation? Is it even reparation if it is compulsory? ***Even if the financial obligation is satisfied, the moral obligation would not be...*** and a vacuum would still remain. In summary, we've ruled out voluntary reparation, and we've ruled out compulsory reparation... so we've ruled out the feasibility of reparation.

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  5. I just thought of another problem with the lifegaurd analogy, and therefore another problem with the premise that the government was negligent towards the slaves.

    Consider what exactly the responsibility of a government is towards its citizens. Your analogy implies that the government exists to protect its citizens, which is certainly *a* responsibility of government (hence why we have police, emergency services, public utilities, etc) but I argue that this is not *the primary* responsibility of government. I argue that the primary responsibility of government is to provide order and stability to the nation, and furthermore, I argue that the two goals - providing order and stability, and providing protection, do not always coincide. Consider the example of a citizen who volunteers to become a soldier for the US and fights ISIS abroad. The government will help the citizen train to become a soldier, learning the basic skills of combat, and provide the soldier with gear and knowledge of warfare, as well as assistance in fighting the battle. In other words, the government provides order and stability to the soldier's life, but the government does not exist to protect the soldier, the government in fact will expose the soldier to danger, as that is his job. Another example: consider a hospice. The nurses and staff there do not exist to protect the patients from death, rather they just try to make the transition as smooth and painless as possible (i.e. stabilizing the transition).

    What if it was the case that intervening in the southern states to stop slavery was judged to comprise the primary goal of government? It certainly was the case that a volcano of chaos erupted during and after the civil war, and perhaps the government was trying to avoid that chaos at all costs. Nonetheless, introducing dramatic change into one's life, even if their life is miserable (as a slave's would be generally), can cause more harm than good often. To use the starvation analogy again, a starved person must be reintroduced to food slowly, otherwise they will overeat and hurt themselves. As slaves were deprived of freedom, perhaps the government thought it would be more prudent to slowly reintroduce freedom to the slaves, instead of suddenly intervening and shutting down the system.

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